So with Citizens United, the activist conservative Supreme Court ruled that corporations could spend unlimited amounts of unregulated money to buy elections.
Today, that same activist conservative Supreme Court ruled that unions had to get opt-in permission from members to use dues for political purposes (something petitioners didn't even ask for).
So does that mean corporations need to get opt-in permission from shareholders in order to be allowed to use company resources for political purposes? Logic would dictate so.
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